A) subcutaneously
B) intravenously
B) rectally
D) orally
D) nasally

2. Irrigoscopy – x-ray examination

A) kidney
B) stomach
B) large intestine
G) small intestine
D) lungs

3. Fibrogastroscopy – research

A) kidney
B) stomach
B) large intestine
G) bronchial tree
D) hearts

4. Colonoscopy - examination

A) rectum
B) colon
B) kidney
D) stomach
D) hearts

5. Preparing the patient on the day of fibrogastroscopy

A) increasing fluid intake
B) fluid intake restrictions
C) performing a cleansing enema
D) state on an empty stomach
D) setting microenemas

6. Fluoroscopy is performed strictly on an empty stomach.

A) rectum
B) kidney
B) sigmoid colon
D) stomach
D) lungs

7. Preparing the patient for irrigoscopy is an exception

A) drinking plenty of fluids
B) foods containing fiber
B) taking laxatives
D) giving an enema
D) gastric lavage

8. The nurse conducts a test to determine the tolerance of iodine-containing drugs when

A) irrigography
B) fluorography
B) bronchography
D) urography
D) radiography

9. Endoscopic examination of the lower parts of the large intestine

A) fibrogastroscopy
B) colonoscopy
B) sigmoidoscopy
D) cytoscopy
D) bronchoscopy

10. X-ray examination of the large intestine

A) irrigoscopy
B) gastroscopy
B) colonoscopy
D) cytoscopy
D) bronchoscopy

11. Patient preparation for colonoscopy includes

A) a high-calorie diet
B) low calorie diet
B) fluid restriction
D) performing cleansing enemas
D) drinking plenty of fluids

12. Recommendations for the patient on the eve of urography in the afternoon

A) refusal of dinner
B) drinking plenty of fluids
B) restriction of fluid intake
D) taking medications
D) eating foods rich in protein

13. Cholecystography – x-ray examination

A) kidney
B) stomach
B) gallbladder
G) bladder
D) rectum

14. X-ray examination of the kidneys

A) urography
B) cholecystography
B) irrigography
D) bronchography
D) fluorography

15. Preparing the patient for internal urography includes

A) gastric lavage
B) drinking plenty of fluids
B) fluid restriction
D) food restriction
D) colon cleansing

16. A contrast agent is administered to the patient during irrigography.

A) orally
B) sublingually
B) rectally
D) parenterally
D) nasally

17. Preparing the patient for cholecystography includes the appointment

A) following a strict diet
B) performances vent pipe
C) fluid intake restrictions
D) tests for X-ray contrast agent
D) gastric lavage

18. Preparation for an ultrasound of the patient’s bladder includes

A) state on an empty stomach
B) performing a cleansing enema
B) emptying the bladder
D) fluid restriction
D) bladder filling

19. Endoscopic examination of the bladder is

A) cystoscopy
B) irrigoscopy
B) colonoscopy
D) fibrogastroscopy
D) bronchoscopy

20. Endoscopy of the abdominal organs is

A) cystoscopy
B) colonoscopy
B) fibrogastroscopy
D) laparoscopy
D) irrigoscopy

21. Indications for gastric lavage are all except:

A) alcohol poisoning
B) dehydration
B) food poisoning
D) drug poisoning
D) mushroom poisoning

22. Impurities in vomit cannot be:

A) blood
B) stones
B) food
D) bile
D) mucus

23. If vomit is the color of “coffee grounds,” the patient must create conditions other than

A) peace
B) hunger
B) warmth
D) cold
D) prohibition of drinking

24. Contraindications for gastric lavage are all except

A) mushroom poisoning
B) gastric bleeding
B) burn of the esophagus
G) acute abdomen
D) myocardial infarction

25. Amount of water for tubeless gastric lavage, l except

A) 0.5
B) 2
B) 2.5
D) 1
D) 3

26. Amount of water for tube gastric lavage, l except

A) 12
B) 10
B) 8
D) 3
D) 2

27. Water temperature for gastric lavage, ⁰C

A) 10-15
B) 22-24
B) 26-28
D) 36-38
D) 20-22

28. Purpose of gastric lavage

A) medicinal
B) hygienic
B) rehabilitation
D) sanitary
D) psychological

29. Clinical signs of dyspepsia all except

A) belching
B) convulsions
B) heartburn
D) nausea
D) vomiting

30. Clinical manifestations of acute blood loss

A) belching
B) heartburn
B) dizziness
D) diarrhea
D) constipation

31. Components of a system for gastric lavage in a conscious person

A) gastric tubes
B) spatulas
B) tourniquets
D) bandages
D) pipettes

32. The clinical picture of the probe entering the respiratory tract is not characterized

A) cough
B) turning blue
B) difficulty breathing
D) heart pain
D) asphyxia

33. Constipation - retention of stool for more than an hour

A) 48
B) 24
B) 12
D) 6
D) 10

34. Purpose of using a cleansing enema

A) dehydration
B) swelling
B) diagnosis of Quincke's edema
D) diagnosis of intestinal obstruction
D) bowel movement

35. Contraindication for enemas

A) stool retention
B) intoxication of the body
B) intestinal flatulence
D) neoplasm in the rectum
D) bowel movement

36. Depth of insertion of the rectal tip during a cleansing enema, cm

A) 3-4
B) 8-10
B) 15-20
D)20-30
D) 1-2

37. Water temperature for performing a cleansing enema, °C

A) 38-40
B) 32-36
B)20-28
D)16-18
D) 10-12

38. Cleansing enema is contraindicated during

A) preoperative
B) prenatal
C) preparing the patient for diagnostic procedures
D) early postoperative on the digestive organs
D) late postoperative on the digestive organs

39. Volume of water for performing a cleansing enema, l

A) 0.5
B) 1-1.5
B) 8-10
d) 10-12
D) 5-6

40. Water temperature for a cleansing enema with spastic constipation, °C

A) 14-16
B) 20-28
B) 32-36
D) 38-40
D) 10-12

41. Water temperature for a cleansing enema with atonic constipation, °C

A) 40-42
B) 37-38
c) 20-28
D) 14-16
D) 35-36

42. The emptying effect of a cleansing enema occurs through

A) 8-10 hours
b) 2-4 hours
c) 20-30 minutes
D) 5-10 minutes
D) 6-7 hours

43. Solution for disinfecting Esmarch’s mug;

A) lumax-chlorine
b) plivasept
c) hydrogen peroxide
D) saline solution
D) 10% chloramine solution

44. Exposure time for disinfection of the enema tip with 0.05% anolyte solution, min.

a) 60
b) 45
c) 30
D) 15
D)10

45. Macroclysters include

A) medicinal
b) cleansing
c) oil
D) hypertensive
D) hypotonic

46. ​​Depth of insertion of the soft tip for suspected intestinal obstruction, cm

a) 2-3
b) 8-10
c) 15-20
D) 20-30
D) 20-40

47. Volume of water for colon lavage, l

A) 0.5
B) 1-1.5
B) 8-10
D) 10-15
D) 2-4

48. Water temperature for siphon enema, °C

A) 16-18
B) 20-28
B) 32-36
D) 38-42
D) 10-14

49. Indications for performing a siphon enema

A) diarrhea
B) anasarca
B) atonic state of the intestines
D) obstruction of the large intestine
D) nutritional constipation

50. Level of decontamination of the nurse’s hands before administering a cleansing enema

A) surgical
B) hygienic
B) social
D) preventive
D) therapeutic

51. A doctor prescribes a cleansing enema to a patient when

A) hemorrhoids
B) coprostasis
B) ulceration of the large intestine
D) colon polyposis
D) diarrhea

52. The enema tip after performing the procedure, the nurse should

A) rinse
B) clear
B) disinfect
D) sterilize
D) disinfect

53. What damage to the respiratory system occurs in the first hours of poisoning?

A) suppression of excitability respiratory center;
B) dysfunction of the respiratory muscles;
IN) toxic edema lungs;
D) toxic tracheobronchitis;
D) violation of tracheobronchial patency.

54. What lesions of the cardiovascular system can be observed during poisoning, except

A) acute cardiovascular failure associated with inhibition of excitability of the vasomotor center;
B) acute cardiovascular failure associated with weakening of the left ventricular myocardium;
B) toxic (painful) shock;
D) violations heart rate
D) acute cardiovascular failure associated with hypovolemia;

55. What therapeutic measures are advisable to carry out in case of ethyl alcohol poisoning, except?

A) gastric lavage.
B) subcutaneous administration of cordiamine;
B) forced diuresis;
D) hemodialysis;
D) subcutaneous administration of caffeine.

56. What assistance should be provided for bites of poisonous snakes, except?

A) squeezing out the first drops of blood from the wound;
B) cauterization of the bite site;
B) plenty of warm drinks;
D) coldness to the bite site,
D) the use of specific anti-snake serum.

57. First aid for drowning, except:

A) removing water from respiratory tract the victim;
B) removing water from the stomach by inserting a tube;
IN) artificial respiration;
G) indirect massage hearts;
D) urgent hospitalization.

58. Early signs of heat stroke, except:

A) general weakness;
B) headache;
B) nausea;
D) delirium, hallucinations, loss of consciousness;
D) brokenness

59. First aid for sunstroke, except:

A) move the victim to a cool place, protected from the sun;
B) cold compress or an ice pack to the head
C) artificial respiration and chest compressions
D) subcutaneous administration of cordiamine
D) subcutaneous administration of caffeine

60. First aid for electrical injury, except:

A) release the victim from the electric current
B) cover the victim with earth;
B) artificial respiration
D) indirect cardiac massage
D) urgent hospitalization

NURSING IN THERAPY

with the primary course

medical care

Tasks in the test form for security 3

NURSING IN PULMONOLOGY 4

NURSING IN CARDIOLOGY 5

NURSING IN GASTROENTEROLOGY 6

NURSING IN NEPHROLOGY 7

NURSING IN HEMATOLOGY 7

NURSING IN ENDOCRINOLOGY 8

NURSING PROCESS FOR JOINT DISEASES 9

INTRODUCTION

Dear colleagues!

Teaching students in medical college(school) ends with a final certification, which includes therapy issues. This manual will help you prepare for the upcoming certification.

When preparing for certification you should:

1. Test your knowledge:

• 
  answer tasks in test form for all sections;
• 
  check your answers against standards;
• 
  evaluate your knowledge according to the following criteria:
• 
  91-100% of correct answers - “excellent”;
• 
  81-90% of correct answers are “good”;
• 
  71-80% of correct answers - “satisfactory”;
• 
  70% or less correct answers are “unsatisfactory”.

2. If the grade is unsatisfactory, the educational material should be re-worked.

3. Repeat solving problems in test form.

We wish you success!

Requirements of the State educational standard for the level of training of specialists in the field of therapy for specialty 0406 Nursing, basic level of secondary vocational education

The nurse should:

• 
  know the organization system therapeutic assistance;
• 
  know the reasons clinical manifestations, diagnostic methods, complications, principles of treatment and prevention of diseases internal organs;
• 
  possess professional communication skills;
• 
  be able to perform nursing procedures to care for patients with diseases of internal organs;
• 
  be able to prepare the patient for special methods diagnostics;
• 
  be able to implement nursing process when caring for patients with diseases of internal organs;
• 
  be able to draw up medical documentation;
• 
  be able to provide first aid at emergency conditions in therapy.

Security test tasks

1. BCG vaccine administered for the purpose of immunization

a) intramuscularly

b) intramuscularly or subcutaneously

c) strictly subcutaneously

d) strictly intradermally

2. Patient after spinal tap needs to be laid

a) on the stomach without a pillow

b) on the back with the head end raised

c) on the side with knees brought to the stomach

d) half sitting

3. The maximum volume of drugs administered intramuscularly into one place does not exceed

a) 5 ml

b) 10 ml

c) 15 ml

d) 20 ml

4. Urgent Care at anaphylactic shock begins to appear

a) in the treatment room

b) in the intensive care unit

c) in the intensive care ward

d) at the site of development

5. In case of anaphylactic shock caused by intravenous drip administration of drugs, the main thing is

a) remove the IV

b) close the IV, maintaining access to the vein

c) creating mental peace

d) oral administration of antihistamines

6. When using cardiac glycosides, you should monitor:

a) body temperature

b) heart rate

c) color of urine

d) sleep

7. Enzymatic drugs (mezim, festal) are taken

a) regardless of food intake

b) strictly on an empty stomach

c) during meals

d) 2-3 hours after eating

8. It is not necessary to protect the respiratory organs with a mask when

a) taking blood from a vein

b) taking a swab from the throat and nose

c) caring for a patient with cholera

d) preparing chloramine solutions

9. Insulin is stored

a) at room temperature

b) at a temperature of +1 -+ 10 WITH

c) at -1-+1 0 WITH

d) frozen

10. The type of transportation determines

A) nurse according to the patient's condition

b) nurse in accordance with the patient’s well-being

c) the doctor in accordance with the patient’s well-being

d) doctor according to the patient’s condition

11. If the temperature drops critically, you should not

a) report the incident to a doctor

b) remove the pillow from under the head and elevate the patient’s legs

c) leave one patient to create maximum peace

d) give the patient hot tea

12. Taking material to bacteriological culture it is forbidden to carry out from the rectum

a) rubber catheter

b) rectal loop

c) rectal tampon

d) rectal glass tube

13. Chloramine working solutions are used

a) once

b) during the shift

c) during the working day

d) until the color of the solution changes

14. After sublingual administration of clonidine with hypertensive crisis the patient should remain in a supine position for at least

a) 10-15 minutes

b) 20-30 minutes

c) 1.5-2 hours

d) 12 hours

15. When hit oil solutions and suspensions into a blood vessel may develop

a) embolism

b) phlegmon

c) bleeding

d) vasospasm

16. When intramuscular injection chlorpromazine the patient needs

a) be in a lying position for 1.5-2 hours

b) take antihistamines

c) place a heating pad on the injection site

d) eat food

Sample answers

1 d, 2 a, 3 b, 4 d, 5 b, 6 b, 7 c, 8 c, 9 b, 10 d, 11 c, 12 d, 13 a, 14 c, 15 a, 16 a.

NURSING IN PULMONOLOGY

1. The main symptom of bronchitis

a) headache

b) weakness

c) pulmonary hemorrhage

d) cough with sputum

2. To basic treatment bronchial asthma applies

a) anti-inflammatory therapy

b) enzyme therapy

c) elimination therapy

d) physiotherapy

3. The main symptom of bronchial asthma

a) inspiratory dyspnea

b) cough with purulent sputum

c) hemoptysis

d) asthma attack

4. Forced position of the patient during an attack of bronchial asthma

a) horizontal

b) horizontal with raised legs

c) lying on your side

d) sitting, with emphasis on hands

5. Peak flowmetry is the definition

a) tidal volume of the lungs

b) vital capacity of the lungs

c) residual lung volume

d) peak expiratory flow

6. Most informative method diagnosis of pneumonia

a) blood test

b) sputum analysis

c) pleural puncture

d) chest x-ray
7. The drainage position is given to the patient for the purpose of

a) reduce fever

b) reducing shortness of breath

c) dilation of the bronchi

d) facilitating the discharge of sputum

8. Individual pocket spittoon should be 1/4 full

a) water

b) saline solution

c) 25% soda solution

d) chloramine

9. Lung abscess is

a) pneumonia

b) inflammation of the pleura

c) formation of a cavity with pus

d) accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity

1. 
   At long-term use antibiotics, the patient may develop

a) swelling

b) fever

c) dysbacteriosis

d) weight gain

11. Risk factor for lung cancer

a) obesity

b) hypothermia

c) infection

d) smoking

12. The main symptom of dry pleurisy

a) shortness of breath

b) weakness

c) fever

d) pain in chest

13. Pleural puncture with therapeutic purpose carried out at

a) bronchial asthma

b) pneumonia

c) chronic bronchitis

G) exudative pleurisy
14. Increased airiness of the lungs is

a) hydrothorax

b) hemothorax

c) pneumosclerosis

d) emphysema

15. Main symptoms of pneumonia

a) weakness, headache, glassy sputum

b) chest pain, shortness of breath, fever

c) prolonged low-grade fever, fatigue

d) swelling, increased blood pressure, rhythm disturbances

STANDARD ANSWERS

1 g, 2 a, 3 g, 4 g, 5 g, 6 g, 7 g, 8 g, 9 c, 10 c, 11 g, 12 g, 13 g, 14 g, 15 b.

NURSING IN CARDIOLOGY

1. Etiology of rheumatism

a) beta-hemolytic streptococcus

b) Staphylococcus aureus

c) viruses

d) rickettsia

a) 10 minutes before meals

b) 20 minutes before meals

c) 30 minutes before meals

d) after eating

3. Possible factor risk of hypertension

a) neuropsychic stress

b) focus of chronic infection

c) hypovitaminosis

d) hypothermia

4. Blood pressure 180/100 mm Hg. - This

a) hypertension

b) hypotension

c) collapse

d) norm

5. Complications of hypertension

a) stroke, myocardial infarction

b) fainting, collapse

c) rheumatism, heart disease

d) pneumonia, pleurisy

6. Risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis

A) high level cholesterol

b) physical education classes

c) unburdened heredity

d) rational nutrition

a) vitamin C

b) iron

c) potassium

d) cholesterol

8. Main symptom of angina pectoris

a) weakness

b) squeezing, pressing pain

c) shortness of breath

d) nausea

9. Independent nursing intervention in the event of compressive chest pain

a) administration of morphine

b) administration of analgin

c) nitroglycerin under the tongue

d) diphenhydramine orally

10. Typical form of myocardial infarction

a) abdominal

b) anginal

c) asthmatic

d) painless

11. The appearance of suffocation and copious frothy pink sputum during myocardial infarction is a manifestation

a) pneumonia

b) hemoptysis

c) pulmonary hemorrhage

d) pulmonary edema

12. A patient with myocardial infarction requires hospitalization

a) in the first hours of the disease

b) on the 2nd day of the disease

c) on the 3rd day of illness

d) on the 4th day of the disease
13. The nurse applies venous tourniquets on a limb with

a) bronchial asthma

b) fainting

c) angina pectoris

d) cardiac asthma

14. Edema of cardiac origin appears

a) in the morning on the face

b) on your feet in the morning

c) in the evening on the face

d) on your feet in the evening

15. In the treatment of chronic heart failure, they are used

a) antibiotics, nitrofurans

b) bronchodilators, mucolytics

c) cytostatics, glucocorticosteroids

G) ACE inhibitors, diuretics

STANDARD ANSWERS

1 a, 2 d, 3 a, 4 a, 5 a, 6 a, 7 d, 8 b, 9 c, 10 b, 11 d, 12 a, 13 g, 14 g, 15 g.

NURSING IN GASTROENTEROLOGY

1. Endoscopic examination of the esophagus, stomach and duodenum

a) irrigoscopy

b) colonoscopy

c) sigmoidoscopy

d) esophagogastroduodenoscopy

2. The main cause of gastric and duodenal ulcers

a) hypothermia, overwork

b) Helicobacter pylori infection

c) physical overload, hypothermia

G) viral infection, hypothermia

3. The most common complication peptic ulcer

a) intestinal obstruction

b) cachexia

c) dehydration

d) stomach bleeding

4. Independent nursing intervention for gastric bleeding

a) gastric lavage

b) cleansing enema

c) a heating pad on the stomach

d) ice pack on the stomach
5. Patient with peptic ulcer recommended

a) fasting

b) reducing calorie intake

c) fluid restriction

d) frequent small meals

6. The most informative method for diagnosing stomach cancer

a) gastric intubation

b) duodenal intubation

c) ultrasound examination

G) endoscopic examination with targeted biopsy

a) fluid restriction

b) limiting table salt

c) foods rich in fiber

d) foods low in fiber

8. Irrigoscopy is an X-ray contrast study

a) esophagus

b) stomach

c) small intestine

d) large intestine

9. Risk factor chronic hepatitis and liver cirrhosis

a) obesity

b) infection with hepatitis B viruses

c) physical inactivity

G) low level life

10. Warn chronic diseases liver can

a) prevention of acute viral hepatitis

b) hardening

c) avoiding hypothermia

d) sanitation of foci of infection

11. Exacerbation chronic cholecystitis provokes

a) stress

b) hypothermia

c) intake of carbohydrates

d) eating fatty foods

12. The main symptom of cholelithiasis

a) loss of appetite

b) jaundice

c) nausea

d) pain in the right hypochondrium

STANDARD ANSWERS

1 g, 2 b, 3 g, 4 g, 5 g, 6 g, 7 c, 8 g, 9 b, 10 a, 11 g, 12 g.

NURSING IN NEPHROLOGY

1. When acute glomerulonephritis urine has color

a) colorless

b) "beer"

c) straw yellow

d) "meat slop"

2. Urine for general purposes clinical analysis the nurse should deliver to the laboratory within

a) 1 hour

b) 3 hours

c) 5 hours

d) 7 hours

3. To conduct a urine test using the Zimnitsky method, the nurse prepares the patient

a) a dry jar

b) a sterile jar

c) dry test tube

d) 8 dry cans

4. Nocturia is

a) decrease in daily urine volume to less than 500 ml

b) an increase in the daily amount of urine more than 2000 ml

c) predominance of nocturnal diuresis over daytime diuresis

d) painful urination

5. The main cause of acute pyelonephritis

a) ascending urinary tract infection

b) poor nutrition

c) hypothermia

d) stress

6. Attack severe pain in the lower back with irradiation along the ureters in groin area called

a) intestinal colic

b) renal colic

c) biliary colic

G) hepatic colic
7. In diagnostics urolithiasis has priority

A) physical examination

b) laboratory tests

c) endoscopic examinations

d) ultrasound examination

8. Chronic renal failure develops with chronic

a) glomerulonephritis

b) hepatitis

c) pancreatitis

d) cystitis

9. When uremic coma there is an odor in the exhaled air

a) alcohol

b) ammonia

c) acetone

d) rotten eggs

10. For chronic renal failure limited in diet

a) proteins

b) vitamins

c) fats

d) carbohydrates

STANDARD ANSWERS

1 d, 2 a, 3 d, 4 c, 5 a, 6 b, 7 d, 8 a, 9 b, 10 a.

NURSING IN HEMATOLOGY

1. Most common reason development of iron deficiency anemia

a) vitamin deficiency

b) chronic blood loss

c) excess consumption of carbohydrates

d) excessive protein intake

2. Product with the greatest content gland

a) cereal

b) milk

c) meat

d) beets

3. During treatment B 12 -deficiency anemia used

a) adrenaline

b) heparin

c) ferroplex

d) cyanocobalamin

4. Sternal puncture carried out for diagnosis

a) pleurisy

b) leukemia

c) pneumonia

d) cirrhosis of the liver

5. Manifestation hemorrhagic syndrome for acute leukemia

a) weakness

b) fever

c) heaviness in the left hypochondrium

G) nosebleed

STANDARD ANSWERS

1 b, 2 c, 3 g, 4 b, 5 g

NURSING IN ENDOCRINOLOGY

1. Reason overweight body

a) physical education classes

b) sedentary lifestyle life

c) hypothermia

d) vegetarianism

2. Normal indicators fasting blood glucose (mmol/l)

a) 1.1-2.2

b) 2.2-3.3

c) 3.3-5.5

d) 6.6-8.8

3. A disease in which tachycardia, exophthalmos, and tremor are observed

a) hypothyroidism

b) thyrotoxicosis

c) diabetes mellitus

d) endemic goiter

4. When insufficient content iodine in food develops

a) diffuse toxic goiter

b) obesity

c) diabetes mellitus

d) endemic goiter
5. When diabetes mellitus the blood test shows

a) hyperproteinemia

b) hypoproteinemia

c) hyperglycemia

d) hyperbilirubinemia

6. Complication of diabetes mellitus

a) ketoacidotic coma

b) hypertensive crisis

c) pulmonary edema

d) pulmonary hemorrhage

7. Main symptoms of a hypoglycemic state

a) pain in the heart area, shortness of breath

b) shortness of breath, dry cough

c) swelling, headache

d) feeling of hunger, sweating

8. Independent nursing intervention for hypoglycemic conditions

a) administration of dibazole

b) administration of insulin

c) drink sweet tea

d) drink rosehip decoction

STANDARD ANSWERS

1 b, 2 c, 3 b, 4 d, 5 c, 6 a, 7 d, 8 c.
NURSING IN ALLERGOLOGY

1. Antibiotic, more often causing an allergic reaction

a) lincomycin

b) penicillin

c) tetracycline

d) erythromycin

2. Tactics of a nurse when there is a threat of laryngeal edema outside a medical institution

a) outpatient observation

b) referral to a clinic

c) referral for a blood test

d) urgent hospitalization

3. Emergency care for anaphylactic shock

a) adrenaline, prednisolone, rheopolyglucin

b) baralgin, no-shpa, morphine

c) clonidine, pentamine, lasix

d) nitroglycerin, analgin, validol

STANDARD ANSWERS

1 b, 2 d, 3 a.

NURSING PROCESS FOR JOINT DISEASES

1. Typical symptom rheumatoid arthritis

a) weakness

b) shortness of breath

V) morning stiffness joints

d) abdominal pain

2. Potential patient problem with rheumatoid arthritis

a) jaundice

b) constipation

c) wet cough

d) joint deformation

1. Potential physiological problem of the patient:
a) risk of diaper rash +
b) sleep disturbance
c) nausea

2. The number of fundamental human needs according to V. Henderson:
a) 10
b) 14 +
c) 13

3. For how long are long-term goals determined:
a) less than a week
b) for one day
c) more than a week +

4. The nurse gives oral medications to patients. What kind of intervention is this:
a) dependent +
b) interdependent
c) independent

5. The patient has a temperature of 39 degrees, this is a problem:
a) potential
b) emotional
c) real +

6. How often can a nursing diagnosis change:
a) not often, several times every two days
b) often, sometimes several times a day +
c) does not change during treatment

7. Year of creation Russian Society Red Cross:
a) 1877
b) 1878
c) 1876 +

8. Non-verbal means of communication:
a) facial expressions +
b) language
c) speech

9. Henderson developed her model based on the theory:
a) Nightingale
b) Orem
c) Maslow +

10. Founder of the Red Cross Society:
a) Paul
b) Dunant +
c) Oppel

11. For how long are short-term goals determined:
a) up to 7 days +
b) up to two weeks
c) for one day

12. Internal factors health risks:
a) bad habits
b) hereditary diseases +
c) physical inactivity

13. Demographic indicator:
a) birth rate +
b) disability
c) soreness

14. Social needs according to Maslow, level:
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3 +

15. The first community of sisters of mercy in Russia:
a) Holy Trinity +
b) Georgievskaya
c) Holy Cross

16. Responsibilities of a nurse:
a) healthy environment
b) respect for the patient’s rights +
c) mercy

17. The nurse fills out the nursing medical history:
a) before discharge
b) after visiting doctors
c) daily +

18. Year of the First All-Russian Conference according to nursing theory:
a) 1998
b) 1993 +
c) 1996

19. Maslow depicted the levels of needs as:
a) square
b) circle
c) pyramids +

20. Can the nurse independently plan dependent interventions:
a) yes
b) no +
c) sometimes

21. Number of levels of specialist training in nursing:
a) 3 +
b) 5
c) 4

22. Doctor supervising the activities of the sisters during the Crimean Company:
a) Sklifasovsky
b) Pirogov +
c) Botkin

23. A patient in nursing is a person who needs:
a) treatment
b) prevention
c) care +

24. Second stage of the nursing process:
a) determining the goals of nursing care
b) identifying the patient’s problems +
c) nursing examination

25. The third stage of the nursing process:
a) examination of the patient
b) identifying the patient's problems
c) drawing up a care plan +

26. One of the problems of bioethics:
a) mercy
b) euthanasia +
c) humanism

27. Health is the dynamic harmony of the individual with environment achieved through:
a) adaptations +
b) hardening
c) nutrition

28. How many stages in the nursing process:
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5 +

29. Subjective method of nursing examination:
a) questioning the patient +
b) examination of the patient
c) determination of edema

30. External factors health risks:
a) hereditary diseases
b) polluted environment +
c) hereditary predisposition

1. How is used dressing material contaminated with HIV disinfected?
1) 10% clarified bleach solution - 2 hours+
2) 10% chloramine solution - 60 minutes
3) 3% chloramine solution for 60 minutes
4) 1% chloramine solution - 60 minutes

2. How many levels are there in the hierarchy of basic vital needs according to A. Maslow?
1) fourteen
2) ten
3) five+
4) three

3. Determine the mode for sterilizing gloves in an autoclave.
1) pressure 2 atm., time 10 minutes
2) pressure 2 atm., 45 min
3) pressure 1.1 atm., 45 min+
4) pressure 0.5 atm., 20 min

4. What are the goals of nursing care?
1) short-term+
2) general
3) personal
4) not specific

5. Determine the type of problem: the patient has not had a bowel movement for 48 hours.
1) minor
2) potential
3) emotional
4) real+

6. What solution is needed to disinfect floors during anaerobic infection?
1) 10% bleach
2) 6% hydrogen peroxide with 0.5% detergent solution+
3) 6% hydrogen peroxide
4) 3% chloramine

7. How is the pulse determined by its filling?
1) rhythmic, arrhythmic
2) fast, slow
3) full, empty+
4) hard, soft

8. What is it? final stage nursing process?
1) determination of the effectiveness of nursing care+
2) choice of priorities
3) identifying the patient's problems
4) identification of impaired needs of the body

9. What is the complete destruction of microorganisms, spores and viruses called?
1) disinfection
2) sterilization+
3) disinfestation
4) deratization

10. What solution is used to treat the skin when HIV-infected material comes into contact with it?
1) 6% hydrogen peroxide solution
2) 3% hydrogen peroxide solution
3) 70 degrees. alcohol+
4) 96 degrees. Alcohol

11. How long does it take to disinfect medical thermometers in a 3% hydrogen peroxide solution?
1) 45 min
2)300 min
3) 20 min
4) 180 min+

12. What position of the patient’s hands causes danger when transporting him on a wheelchair?
1) on the stomach
2) in a crossed state
3) on the armrests
4) outside the armrests+

13. Select the correct mode for sterilizing syringes and needles in an autoclave:
1) T=120 min. t=100 deg. With P=1.1 atm.
2) T=60 min. t=180 deg. With P=2 atm.
3) T=45 min. t=140 deg. With P=1 atm.
4) T=20 min. t=132 deg. With P=2 atm. +

14. Where is heparin most often injected into the subcutaneous tissue?
1) shoulder
2) belly+
3) forearms
4) buttocks

15. How is the skin treated when HIV-infected material gets on it?
1) 96o alcohol
2) 70o alcohol+
3) 6% hydrogen peroxide solution
4) 3% hydrogen peroxide solution

16. How long does it take to disinfect objects with which a tuberculosis patient has been in contact with a 5% chloramine solution?
1) 240min+
2) 120min
3) 60min
4) 30min

17. Period of use cleaning solution, containing 6% H2O2, if it did not change color during operation:
1) 72 hours
2) 48 hours
3) 24 hours+
4) once

18. Select the most reliable method of sterilization control:
1) mechanical
2) chemical
3) physical
4) biological+

19. What water is used after pre-sterilization cleaning for rinsing medical instruments?
1) flow-through+
2) boiled
3) distilled
4) sterile

20. What should be the disinfectant solution for spring cleaning operating room?
1) 6% hydrogen peroxide solution with 0.5% detergent solution+
2) 5% chloramine solution
3) 1% chloramine solution
4) 0.1% dezoxon solution

21. What should you watch out for when using cardiac glycosides?
1) body temperature
2) heart rate+
3) urine color
4) sleep

22. Concentration of alcohol used to treat the patient’s skin before injection (in degrees):
1) 96
2) 80
3) 70+
4) 60

23. How long should you wash your hands after any manipulation?
1) 5 min
2) 1 min
3) 30 sec
4) 15 sec+

24. What does a hospital admissions department nurse fill out?
1) front page medical card+
2) temperature sheet
3) certificate of incapacity for work
4) list of medical prescriptions

1.What is not included in the concept of “patient care”?
-a) Creation and maintenance of a sanitary and hygienic regime
-b) Hygienic care of the patient
+c) Sent to a nursing home
2. What is not the responsibility of a nurse?
+a) Washing floors
-b) Compliance with medical orders
-c) Filling out medical documentation
3. What is the primary characteristic of a nurse’s specialty?
-a) Medical ufology
+b) Medical deontology
-c) Medical psychology
4. What personal qualities should a medical worker develop?
-a) Infantility
+b) Strict compliance personal hygiene and health
-c) Commercialism
5. What does not apply to medical institutions?
+a) Terminals
-b) Outpatient clinics
-c) Hospitals

6. What type medical institutions include clinics?
-a) Hospital
-b) Hospice+c) Outpatient
7. On what principle do clinics work?
-a) Localized
-b) Tsehov
+c) To the district police officer
8. On what principle do medical units and health centers work?
-a) To the district police officer
+b) Tsehovoy
-c) Localized
9 A dispensary is a medical and preventive institution...
-a) Wide profile
-b) Creative profile
+c) Narrow profile
10. To medical institutions stationary type Not
relate...
+a) Ambulance stations
-b) Clinics
-c) Hospitals
11. What is not produced in reception department hospital?
-a) Anthropometry
+b) Fingerprinting
-c) Sanitation
12. Why are cabinets with medicines groups A and B should
lockable?
-a) Very expensive; b) Easily deteriorate in the light.
+c) Potent and toxic substances
13. Which regime is most important in all medical institutions?
-a) Autocratic
-b) Conveyor
+c) Sanitary
14. What diet therapeutic nutrition doesn't exist?
-a) Diet No. 6
+c) Diet No. 20
-b) Diet No. 15
15. Fever is...
-a) Atypical condition
-b) Metaphysical state
+c) Adaptive reaction of the body

16. What type of decrease in body temperature does not exist?
+a) Thermodynamic
-b) Lytic
-c) Critical
17. Are body temperature and pulse related?
-a) Not related
-b) In exceptionally rare cases
+c) Related
18. Hirudotherapy is a treatment...?
-a) Snails+b) Leeches
-c) Frogs
19. The minimum amount of medicinal substance that the therapeutic agent provides
the effect is called...?
+a) Therapeutic dose
-b) Psychological dose
-c) Palliative dose
20. What is called idiosyncrasy?
+a) Increased sensitivity to the medicine
-b) Reduced sensitivity to the drug
-c) Lack of sensitivity to the drug
21. Method of administering medications through digestive tract called -...
-a) Parenteral
-b) Sublingual
+c) Enteral
22. The method of administering medications bypassing the digestive tract is called - ...
-a) Enteral
+b) Parenteral
-c) Inhalation
23. What injections do not exist?
-a) Intravenous
-b) Subcutaneous
+c) Gastronomic
24. Remaining indicator detergents after washing medical
instrument is….-a) Benzidine test
-b) Triethylaluminum test
+c) Phenolphthalein test
25 Indicator of blood residues after washing a medical instrument
is….
+a) Benzidine test
-b) Triethylaluminum test
-c) Phenolphthalein test
26. How is insulin administered?
-a) Intradermally
-b) Intra-arterial
+c) Subcutaneously
27. Which part human body intramuscular injection is more common
injection?
-a) Lower quadrant of the gluteal muscles
+b) Upper quadrant of the gluteal muscles
-c) Doesn't matter

28. Which system controls the entire human body?
+a) Nervous
-b) Blood
-c) Digestive
29. Why is it necessary to check the presence of blood in the syringe during intramuscular
injections?
-a) Just for fun
+b) To ascertain non-entry into the lumen blood vessel-in) To speed up the absorption of the drug
30. Air or oil entering circulatory system a person is called...
-a) Turbulence
-b) Esophagia
+c) Embolism
31. The most dangerous allergic reaction after administration of medications
called...
+a) Anaphylactic shock
-b) Hemorrhagic shock
-c) Catatonic shock